Hey, I'm hyperfocusing on Vanyarin rn, and kinda tripping out over one contradiction I can't find much information on. Some sources I found online say that the Vanyar pronounced <f> very softly, almost like <hw>, and possibly ended up pronouncing them the same, and other sources say the opposite, that the Vanyar just pronounced <hw> as <f>. I can't get to their sources. Am I misunderstanding something? Is one side right and the other wrong? Did Tolkien change his mind? Has anyone else run into this problem or am I just a dunce? I know Vanyarin isn't really on this site, so I understand if this is not the right place, but knowing language nerds, I expect to be thoroughly humiliated by the answer already being completely obvious to y'all. Thanks in advance